BSNL JTO Exam paper

Last Updated on Monday, 10 March 2008 06:55 Written by Editor Friday, 15 February 2008 05:45

Following Are Bharath Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) Junior Telecom Officers (JTO) Exam Paper::–
If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular
b) Trapezoidal
c) Sinusoidal
d) Rectangular
Answer is :- Rectangular

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -
a) It is dimensionless
b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum
c) It’s value for all substances is less than one
d) None
Answer is :- It is dimensionless

2. Pure metals generally have-
a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient
b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient
c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient
d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient
Answer is :- high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air
b) Ferrite
c) Powdered ion
d) Steel
Answer is :- Air

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-
a) C a V1/3
b) C a V-1/3
c) C a V1/2
d) C a V-1/2
Answer is :- C a V-1/3

5. A superconductor is a-
a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
b) A conductor having zero resistance
c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility
d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value
Answer is :-A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of –2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-
a) Thermistor
b) Forward biased pn junction diode
c) Reverse biased pn junction diode
d) FET
Answer is :- Forward biased pn junction diode

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
Answer is :- Near the transformer

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Answer is :- Increased

9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -
a) Are available locally
b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from
c) Have more electrons than holes
d) Have zero energy gaps
Answer is :- Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -
a) Channel resistance
b) Size of depletion regions
c) Voltage drop across channel
d) Gate reverse bias
Answer is :- Gate reverse bias

11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -
a) 1010
b) 105
c) 10-4
d) 10-6
Answer is :- 105

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode –
a) acts as a fixed resistance
b) has a constant voltage across it
c) has a constant current passing through it
d) never overheats
Answer is :- has a constant voltage across it

13. The current amplification factor adc is given by –
a) IC/IE
b) IC/IB
c) IB/IC
d) IB/IC
Answer is :- IC/IE

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-
a) high input impedance
b) low input impedance
c) same input impedance
d) none
Answer is :- high input impedance

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -
a) ohmic
b) bilateral
c) unilateral
d) both a and b
Answer is :- both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -
a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs
c) Diode and two resistors
d) Triac width
Answer is :- Pair of four layer SCRs

17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ´ 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ´ 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be –
a) 106/cm3
b) 103/ cm3
c) 1010/ cm3
d) 1012/ cm3
Answer is :- 103/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero’ represents -
a) Kirchhoff’s law
b) Norton’s theorem
c) Thevenin’s theorem
d) Superposition theorem
Answer is :- Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is –
a) TE1 mode
b) TM01 mode
c) TE01 mode
d) Higher order mode
Answer is :- TE01 mode

20. A two-port network is symmetrical if –
a) z11z22 – z12z21 = 1
b) h11h22 – h12h21 = 1
c) AD – BC = 1
d) y11y22 – y12y21 = 1
Answer is :-AD – BC = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-
a) balun
b) broad band directional coupler
c) double stub
d) single stub of adjustable position
Answer is :- double stub

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -
a) by an LC network
b) as an RC driving point impedance
c) as an RC driving point admittance
d) only by an RLC network
Answer is:- only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements –
a) R and C
b) L and C
c) R and L
d) R, L and C
Answer is :- L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to –
a) B
b) Z12
c) —
d) h12
Answer is :- Z12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-
a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.
b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.
c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.
d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.
Answer is :-Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -
a) 250 –300 MHz
b) 150 – 200 MHz
c) 90 – 105 MHz
d) 30-70 MHz
Answer is :-90 – 105 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -
a) Inductive loading
b) Resistive loading
c) Capacitive loading
d) Shielding
Answer is :- Inductive loading

28. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -
a) 49 W
b) 60 W
c) 70 W
d) 140 W
Answer is :- 70 W

30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be –
a) 25W
b) 50W
c) 100W
d) 150W
Answer is :- 25W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ‘f’ in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-
a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m
b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m
c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m
d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
Answer is :- directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -
a) 0.4456 0
b) 1.44560
c) 2.44560
d) 3.44560
Answer is :- 2.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -
a) Polystyrene
b) Glass of low refractive index
c) Paraboloid surfaces
d) Dielectric media having large refractive index
Answer is :- Polystyrene

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209 Comments
1 ... 8 9 10
  1. sir,

    i am final year (ECE) student.i want know about the exams date in 2010.

  2. can csc engineers are elligible for jto exam.plz give syl for csc eng not for all.

  3. sir,i am final yr ECE student,i am preparing for jto exam,plz send schdule and all old qustion paper with answer for my branch only sir,also send name of books for preparation

  4. Dear Sir /Madam

    I’m Pusuing final year ECE, could you help me by sending the JTO Exam Syllabus and Past 2 year solved question paper.I will wait for your reply.

    Thank you!

    1. syallabus of jto.BSNL GE-JTO Recruitment Examination
      Test Paper – VIII
      1. When a inductive coil connected to a 200 V, 50Hz ac supply with 10A current flowing through it dissipates 1000 watts then which of the following will have least value in ohms-
      a.) Resistance
      b.) Reactance
      c.) Impedance
      d.) None

      2 Oscillator crystal are made of –
      a.) Silicon
      b.) Germanium
      c.) Quartz
      d.) None

      3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is-
      a. )Air
      b. )Ferrite
      c.) Powdered ion
      d.) Steel

      4. If we have a parallel plate capacitor of plate area ‘A’ and plate separatoin t and having a capacity C and a metallic plate r of area A and of negligible thickness is introduced in the capacitor at a distance from either of the two plates as shown in the given figure then the capacity of the capacitor will become –
      a.)
      b.)C
      c.)2C
      d.)4C

      5. A superconductor is a –
      a.)A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature
      b.)A conductor having zero resistance
      c.)A perfect conductor with highest di-magnetic susceptibility
      d.)A perfect conductor which becomes resistance when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

      6. When an inductor tunes at 200 KHz with 624 pF capacitor and at 600 KHz with 60.4 pF capacitor then the self capacitance of the inductor would be –
      a)8.05 pF
      b)10.05pF
      c.)16.01pF
      d.)20.01pF

      7. Sparking occur when a load is switched off because the circuit has high –
      a.)Inductance
      b.)Capacitance
      c.)Resistance
      d.)None

      8. Sparking between contacts can be reduced by inserting a –
      a.)Resistance in the line
      b.)Capacitor in series with contacts
      c.)Capacitor in parallel with contacts
      d.)None

      9. RF amplifier of an A.M. receiver is normally biased in –
      a.)Class ‘A’
      b.)Class ‘b’
      c.)Class ‘C’
      d.)None

      10. The value of gate voltage for the operation of enhancement of only N channel MOSFET has to be –
      a.)High positive
      b.)High negative
      c.)Low positive
      d.)Zero

      11. The input gate current of a FET is –
      a.)a few microamperes
      b.)negligibly small
      c.)a few milliamperes
      d.)a few amperes

      12. In the following fig. with R = 30k, the value of current through 2 K resistor is –
      a.)25 mA
      b.)40 mA
      c.)25/16 mA
      d.)10 mA

      13. A step recovery diode –
      a.)has on extremely short recovery time
      b.)conducts equally well in both directions
      c.)is mainly used as a harmonic generator
      d.)is an ideal rectifiers of high frequency signals

      14. In order to get maximum undistorted output signal from CE amplifier with VCC 10V, the value of VCE (Q) should be approximately-
      a.)0.1V
      b.)5V
      c.)10V
      d) V

      15. In a FET the electrode, which corresponds to collector in bipolar transistor, is –
      a.)source
      b.)drain
      c.)gate
      d.)none

      16. The device which acts like an NPN and a PNP transistor connected base to base and emitter to collector is –
      a.)Triac
      b.)UJT
      c.)Diac
      d.)SCR

      17. A typical optical fibre has –
      a.)High refractive index core and low refractive index cladding
      b.)Low refractive index core and high refractive index cladding
      c.)Both a and b
      d.)None

      18. In the following figure circuit diagram of an op-amp based is shown. The ratio is equal to –
      a.)9
      b.)11
      c.)10
      d.)21

      19. When a loud speaker is connected across the terminals A and B of the network shown in the fig. then its impedance to obtain maximum power dissipation in it will be –
      a.)3 – j1
      b.)3 + j9
      c.)7.5 + j 2.5
      d.)7.5 – j 2.5
      BSNL Recruitment Exam Question Paper with sample aptitude / reasoning / technical questions free download here. Answers key / solutions coming shortly!
      20. In the lattice network, the value of R for the maximum power transfer to the load –
      a.)5
      b.)6.5
      c.)8
      d.)9

      21. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (Z0 is the characteristic impedance, Ö is the propagation constant and l is the length of the line-
      a.)Z0 cot h Öl
      b.)Z0 cot Öl
      c.)Z0 tan h.Ö l
      d.) Z0 tan Öl

      22. The approximate thickness of the radome wall should be –
      a.)l
      b.)l/4
      c.)l/2
      d.)l/
      23 A relatively permanent information is stored in
      a. )ROM
      b.)RAM
      c.)PROM
      d.)Volatile memory

      24. The rise time of the RC network shown in the given figure is approximately equal to –
      b.) RC
      c.) 2RC
      d.) 4RC

      25. If in the network shown in the fig. initially a steady state is attained by closing the switch ‘s’ and then if the switch is opened at t = 0, then the current i(t) through the inductor will be –
      a.) cos50tA
      b.) 2A
      c.) 2cos100tA
      d.) 2sin50tA

      26. When the p network of figure – I and T-network of figure – II are equivalent then the values of R1, R2 and R3 will be respectively –
      a) 9W, 6W and 6W
      b.) 6W, 6W and 9W
      c.) 9W, 6W and 9W
      d.) 6W, 9W and 6W

      27. When the impedance matrices of a two port networks are given by and , then if these two networks are connected in series then the impedance matrix of the resulting two-port network will be –
      d.) indeterminate

      28. Joule/coulomb is the unit of -
      a.) Electric field potential
      b.) Potential
      c .) Charge
      d.) None of the above

      29. The electric field line and equipotential lines-
      a.) Are parallel to each other
      b.)Are one and same
      c.) Cut each other orthogonally
      d.)Can be inclined to each other at any angle

      30. For a lossy transmission line short circuited at the receiving end, the input impedance is given by (When Z0 is the characteristic impendence g is the propagation constant and L is the length of the line

      31. When two equal positive point charges are placed along X- axis at X1 and –X1 respectively then the electric field vector at a point P on the positive Y-axis will be directed-
      a.) In the +x direction
      b.) In the –x direction
      c. ) In the +y direction
      d.) In the –y direction

      32. The directions of and in TEM mode transmission line with respect to the direction of propagation are-
      a.) Both and are transverse to the direction of propagation
      b.) is and are transverse and h has a component in the direction of propagation
      c.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation
      d.) is entirely transverse and has a component in the direction of propagation

      33. The lowest TM mode in a rectangular waveguide of cross –section a x b with a>b will be-
      a.) TM01
      b.)TE10
      c.) TM112
      d.)TE11

      34. When a transmitter in a free space radiates a mean power of ‘p’ watts uniformly in all directions then at a distance d sufficiently far from the source in plane the electric field E should be related to p and d as –

      35. When a dipole antenna was radiating with some excitation in free space radiating a certain amount of the power v if then this antenna is immersed in a lake where water is non-dissipative but has a dielectric constant of 81, then the radiated power with the same excitation will be
      a.) Decrease to finite non-zero value
      b.)Remain the same
      c. )Increase
      d.)Decrease to zero

      36. When a (75 – j40)W load is connected to a coaxial line of Z0 = 75 W at 6MHz then the load matching on the line can be accomplished by connecting-
      a.) A short – circuited stub at the load
      b.)An inductance at the load
      c. )A short circuited stub at a specific distance from the load
      d.)none of the above

      37. As compared to analog multimeters, digital multimeters are –
      a.) less accurate
      b.) more accurate
      c.) equally accurate
      d.) none.

      38. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instruments can be used –
      a.) VTVM
      b.) Cathode ray oscilloscope
      c.) Moving iron voltmeter
      d.) Digital multimeter

      39. Which of the following statement is true about two wattmeter method for power measurement in three phase current ?
      a.) power can be measured using two wattmeter method only for star connected three phase circuits.
      b.) when two meter show indentical readings, in the power factor is 0.5.
      c.) when power factor is unit, one of the wattmeter reads zero
      d.) when the reading of the two wattmeters are equal but of opposite sign, then the power factor is zero –
      BSNL recruitment / placement examination paper for previous years 2007 2008 2009 sample aptitude / reasoning / technical questions free download here. Answers key / solutions coming soon!
      40. When a capacitance transducer has two plates of area 5cm2 each, separated by an air gap of 2mm than the displacement sensitivity in pf/cm due to gap change would be –
      a.) 11.1
      b.) 44.2
      c.) 52.3
      d.) 66.3

      41. The Q of a radio coil –
      a.) is independent of frequency
      b.) increases monotonically as frequency increases
      c.) decreases monotonically as frequency increases
      d.) increases upto a certain frequency and then decreases beyond that frequency

      42. When a generator of internal impedance and operating at 1GHz feeds a load via a coaxial line of characteristic impedance 50 ohm then the voltage wave ratio on the feed line is –
      a.) 0.5
      b.) 1.5
      c.) 2.5
      d.) 1.75

      43. The coding system typically used in digital telemetry is –
      a.) PPM (pulse position modulation)
      b.) PAM (pulse amplitude modulation)
      c.) PCM (pulse code modulation)
      d.) PDM (pulse duration modulation)

      44. Radiation pyrometers are used for the measurement of temperature in the range of –
      a.) -2000C to 5000C
      b.) 00C to 5000C
      c.) 5000C to 12000C
      d.) 12000C to 25000C

      45. In the given figure band structure is shown. It is of –
      a.) Gallium Avesenide (GaAs)
      b.) Silicon (Si)
      c.) Copper (Cu)
      d.) Germanium (Ge)

      46. When anode is positive with respect to cathode in an SCR, the numbers of blocked p-n junction is –
      a.) 1
      b.) 2
      c.) 3
      d.) 4

      47. The circuit symbol for a GTO is
      a. b.
      c. d.

      48. In the given fig. mark out the type of Cyclo converters
      a.) 1 phase to 1 phase with continuous conduction
      b.) 1 phase to 1 phase with discontinuous conduction
      c.) step up device
      d.) 3 phase to 1 phase device

      49. In the given fig. A-1, C=5, m H and C=20 m F, C is initially charged to 200 V. After the switch.
      S is closed at t = 0 the
      maximum value of current and the
      time at which it reaches this value are respectively.
      a.) 400 A, 15.707 mS
      b.) 50 A, 30 mS
      c.) 100 A, 62.828 mS
      d.) 400 A, 31.414 mS

      50. In the given circuit the maximum current in the main SCR M can be-
      a.) 200 A
      b.) 170.7 A
      c.) 141.4 A
      d.) 70.7 A

      51. The transfer function of an amplifier is given by
      The high 3-db frequency of the amplifier will approximately

      a.) 5850 KHZ
      b.)585 KHZ
      c.) 5850 HZ
      d.)585HZ

      52. In comparison to full wave rectifier with two diodes the four divide bridge rectifier has the dominant advantage of -
      a). Higher current carrying
      b.)Lower ripple factor
      c.) Higher efficiency
      d.)Lower peak increase voltage require

      53. Power output increase in a class-c amplifier-
      a.) If the conduction angle decrease
      b).If the conduction angle increase
      c.) Are not governed by the conduction angle
      d.)None of the above

      54. A transistor with hie = 1.5 k and hfe = 75 is used in an emitter follower circuit where R1 and R2 are used for normal biasing . Approximate value of it’s current amplification is-
      a.)75
      b.)76
      c.)75/76
      d.)-75

      55. Amplifier of class B has high theoretical efficiency of 78.5 percent because-
      a.) It is biased almost to saturation
      b.)Its quiescent current is low
      c.)It’s output is an exact replica of it’s input
      d.)It is biased well below cut off

      56. The coupling that produces minimum interference with frequency response is-
      a.) Direct coupling
      b.)Impedance coupling
      c.) R C coupling
      d.)Transformer coupling

      57. In the circuit shown in the given figure Rf provides
      a.) Current series feedback
      b.)Current shunt feedback
      c.) Voltage series feedback
      d.)Voltage shunt feedback

      58. Mark the correct relation for the junction transistor

      59. Data in the serial form can be converted into parallel form by using –
      a.) PISO shift register
      b.) SOIP shift register
      c.) SIPO shift register
      d.) POIS shift register

      60. PROMs are used to store-
      a.) bulk information
      b.) information to be accessed rarely
      c.) sequence information
      d.) relatively permanent information

      61. The horizontal axis in a 3 bit unipolar D/A converter represents-
      a.) Output bit combination
      b.) analog output voltage
      c.) input bit combination
      d.) none of the above

      62. ‘Not allowed’ condition in NAND gate SR flip flop is –
      a.) s = 0, R = 0
      b.) s = 1, R = 1
      c.) s = 0, R = 1
      d.) s = 1, R = 0

      63. Name the fastest logic family-
      a) TTL
      b. RTL
      c.) DCTL
      d.) ECL

      64. Equation corresponding to De Morgan’s theorem in Boolean Algebra is –
      a.) (A+B) (A+B) = AA + AB + BA + BB
      c.) A + AB = A
      d.) None of the above

      65. In the given fig find radix of the system –
      a.) 2b.) 4
      c.) 6
      d.) 8

      66. Modems are used for data transmission telephone lines to –
      a.) increase the transmission capacity
      b) improve noice performance
      c.) incorporate error control coding
      d.) eliminate dc component in the transmitted signal

      67. The figure of a control system is shown. The maximum value of gain K for which the system is stable is-
      a.)
      b.) 3
      c.) 4
      d.) 5

      68. Identify the example of open-loop system-
      a.) A windscreen wiper
      b.) Aqualung
      c.) Respiratory system of an animal
      d.) A system for controlling Anti-rocket missiles.

      69. Consider the following expressions indicating the step or impulse response of an initially relaxed control system-
      1. (5 – 4e-2+) u(t)
      2. (e-2t +5) (u(t))
      3 .V(t) + 8e-2t u(t)
      4 . V(t) + 4e-2t 4(t)
      Those which correspond to the step and impulse response of the same system include-
      a.) 1&3
      b.) 1&4
      c.) 2&4
      d.) 1&4
      BSNL GE JTO Recruitment / placement last exam paper previous years 2007 2008 2009 free sample papers here.
      70. A system is described by
      To test its stability by Lyapunov’s method the following V functions are considered.
      Mark the most suitable V-function in this case-
      a.) Only V1
      b.)Only V2
      c.) Both V1 and V2
      d.) Neither V1 nor v2
      71. Identity the polar plot of a typical type zero system with open loop transfer function

      72. The scattering matrix of a magic –tee shown in the given figure is-

      73. Which is the following relate to rational transfer function of a system-
      1. Ratio of Fourier transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
      2. Ratio of Laplace transform of output to input with zero initial conditions.
      3. Laplace transform of system impulse response.
      4. Laplace transform of system unit step response select the correct answer using the codes given below.
      Codes
      a.) 1 and 4
      b.) 2 and 3
      c.) 1 and 3
      d.) 2 and 4

      74. For the signal g (t) – 10 cos (50 pt) cos2 (150at)
      The Nyquist sampling state in t seconds is
      a.) 150 samples per second
      b.) 200 samples per second
      c.) 300 samples per second
      d.) 350 samples per second

      75. In the case of a 70 MHz 1F carries for a transponder band width of 36 MHz; energy must lie between – MHz.
      a.) 34 and 106
      b.) 52. And 88
      c.) 106 and 142
      d.) 34 and 142

      76. Radar used to eliminate clutter in navigational application is –
      a.) Pulse radar
      b.) Tracking radar
      c.) MTI radar
      d.) Mono pulse radar
      77. The 1.55 mm windows is not yet in use with fiber optic systems because –
      a.)The attenuation is higher than at 0.85 mm
      b) The attenuation is higher than at 1.3mm
      c.) Suitable laser devices have not yet been developed
      d.) It does not lend itself to wavelength multiplexing

      78. Pre-emphasis in FM systems involves-
      a.) Compression of the modulating signal
      b.) Expansion of the modulating signal
      c.) Amplification of lower frequency components of the modulating signal.
      d.) Amplification of higher frequency components of the modulating signal.

      79. In a terrestrial microwave system transmission of signals is achieved through-
      a.) reflection from the ionosphere
      b.) line of sight mode
      c) reflection from the ground
      d.) diffraction from the stratosphere.

      80. Casse grain feed is used with a parabolic reflector to
      a.) increase the gain of the system
      b). increase the bandwidth of the system
      c.) reduce the size of the main reflector
      d.) allow the feed to be placed at a convenient point.

      81. In most microwave communication link rain drop attenuation is caused due to-
      a.) scattering of microwaves by water drops of specific size.
      b) scattering of microwaves by a collection of droplets acing as a single body.
      c.) absorption of microwaves by water and consequent heating of the liquid
      d.) absorption of the microwaves by water vapor in the atmosphere.

      82. Circuit in the given figure represents. –
      a.) an astable multivibrator
      b.) A monostable multivibrator
      c.) Voltage controlled oscillator
      d.) Ramp generator

      83. . D = r is-
      a.) Maxwell’s 1st equation
      b.) Maxwell’s II equation
      c.) Maxwell’s III equation
      d.) Maxwell’s IV equation

      84. In a rectangular wave-guide which TM mode exists-
      a.) TM00
      b.) TM01
      c.) Tm10
      d.) TM11

      85. In directional coupler a portion of power two velliry fram port 1) to port 2) is coupled to.
      a). port 4
      b). port 3
      c. port 2.
      d.) port 3 & 4.

      86. For high power i.e. 10 w to 50 kw measurement –
      a.) Barometer are used
      b.) Thermisters are used
      c.) Calorimetric technique
      d.) Calorimetric watt meter technique used

      87. The difference between TWT & klystron is –
      a.) In TWT electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in klystron for short time
      b.) In klystron electrons are in contact with RF field for long time & in TWT for short time
      c.) In klystron there is no contact in RF field & electrons while in TWT there is contact
      d.) In TWT phase is no contact is RF field & electrons while in klystron there is contact

      88. Which one is most suitable for transmission through wave guide-
      a.) Hown antennas
      b.) Bioconical antennas
      c.) helical antenna
      d. Discone

      89. The skip distance of microwave is given by –
      a.)
      b.)
      c.)
      d.)

      90. How many general purpose registers 8085mp-
      a.) 4
      b.) 6
      c.) 8
      c.) 10

      91. 8085 mP has no. of addressing modes-
      a.) 2
      b.) 3
      c.) 4
      d.) 5

      92. What will be status of z and c y flag after execution of SUB A instruction
      a.) z = 0, cy = 0
      b.) z = 0, cy = 1
      c.) z = 1, cy = 0
      d.) z = 1, cy = 1
      93. Microprocessor accept interrupt only if.
      a.) interrupt flip flop disabled.
      b.) when INTA signal is low.
      c. interrupt flip flop enabled.
      d.) none of above.

      94. Microprogramming is a technique
      a.) for programming the microprocessor
      b.) for writing small programs efficiently
      c.) for programming the control steps of computer
      d.) for programming o/p / i/p

      95. High level programs like C are converted into machine language with the help of
      a.) interpreter
      b.) compiler
      c.) operating
      d.) system

      96. (10110011)2 = (?)8
      a.) 253
      b.) 263
      c.) 273
      d.) 283

      97. A Not gate at the output of AND gate converts AND gate into-
      a.) NAND
      b.) NOR
      c.) AND
      d.) NOPE.

      98. The O/P of a logic gate is the gate must be-
      a.) AND
      b.) OR
      c.) NAND
      d.) X-OR

      99. 38. A symbol of JK flip flop is-
      BSNL Free download previous years 2007 2008 2009 recruitment question papers for GE JTO exam sample papers. Answer keys / solutions coming soon!
      100. A demultiplener-
      a.) has multiple i/p and single o/p
      b.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
      c.) has multiple i/p and multiple o/p
      d.) has single i/p and single o/p

      101. Which of the following best describes the authour`s attitude toward fairy tales ?
      a.) fascination
      b.) open approval.
      c.) Indulgent tolerance.
      d.) Scornful.

      102. What type of sentence is this ?
      Hurray! We won the match
      a.) Exclamatory
      b.) assertive
      c.) Negative
      d.) Affirmative

      103. Before which of the following word will you put ‘a’
      a.) hour
      b.) M. A.
      c.) Umbrella
      d.) Man

      104. The noun form of ‘fresh’ is –
      a.) freshly
      b.) freshen
      c.) fresheners
      d.) fresh itself

      105. The word ‘clang’ is an example of –
      a.) Simile
      b.) inversion
      c.) onomatopoeia
      d.) irony

      106. The Forbes magazine acclaimed Azim Premji as richest India’s is the chairman of-
      a.) Pentafour software
      b) Infosys
      c.) IBM
      d.) Wipro

      107. Bharat Ratna award for the year 2001 goes to-
      a.) Lata Mangeshkar and Zakeer Hussain
      b.) Zakeer Hussain and Bismillah Khan
      c.) Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar
      d.) Lata Mangeshkar and Ustad Amzad Ali Khan

      108. Mr. George W-Bush takes over as —— President of the united states of America succeeding Mr. Bill Clinton-
      a.) 42nd
      b.) 43rd
      c.) 40th
      d.) 45th

      109. New Chief Minister of Pondicherry is-
      a.) T. Venkat Naidu
      b.) K. Hari Harh
      c.) N. Rengaswany
      d.) M. Mudliar

      110. No court has the jurisdiction to interfere with the election process once set in motion by the Election commission. This is enshrined in Article-
      a.) 311
      b.) 329
      c.) 356
      d.) 365

      111. Ostrich is a-
      a.) Running bird
      b.) Flying bird
      c) Swimming bird
      d.) Migratory bird

      112. The main atmospheric gas responsible for green house is-
      a.) Oxygen
      b.) Nitrogen
      c.) Ozone
      d.) Carbon-dioxide

      113. Which of the following is not a Kharif Crop-
      a.) Rice
      b.) groundnut
      c.) Sugarcane
      d.) gram

      114. The function of World Bank is to-
      a.) Help in reconstruction and development of world economy
      b.) Facilitate poor countries to trade on concessional rates
      c.) Promote growth of international trade and equilibrium in balance of payments
      d.) Ease trade barriers and establish rule of fair trade

      115. Speed of sound is maximum in-
      a. )Water
      b.) Air
      c.) Steel
      d.) Vacuum
      116. “Long years ago we made a trust with destiny.” Whose words are these-
      a.) Subhash Chandra Bose
      b.) Jawaharlal Nehru
      c.) Lajpat Rai
      d.) Bhagat Singh

      117. Durand cup is associated with-
      a.) Hockey
      b.) Tennis
      c.) Football
      d.) Badminton

      118. Rabindranath Tagore was awarded the Nobel Prize in literature in the year.
      a.) 1908
      b.) 1910
      c.) 1913
      d.) 1914

      119. India successfully conducted its first underground nuclear experiment at Pokhran in Rajas than on-
      a.) May 18, 1975
      b.) May 20, 1974
      c) May 17, 1974
      d.) May 17, 1974

      120. An emergency loan of $ 500 million to help reconstruct infrastructure in earth quake devastated Gujarat approved by-
      a.) Asian development Bank
      b.) World Bank
      c.) Swiss Bank
      d.) Reserve Bank of India

    2. 1. Materials and components
      Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.
      2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
      Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.
      3. Network theory
      Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.
      4. Electromagnetic Theory
      Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.
      5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
      Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.
      6. Power Electronics
      Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors. AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks. Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.
      Engineering Stream Paper – II
      1. Analog Electronic Circuits
      Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.
      2. Digital Electronic Circuits
      Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.
      3. Control Systems
      Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.
      4. Communication systems
      Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalisation; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.
      5. Microwave Engineering
      Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.
      6. Computer Engineering
      Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.
      7. Microprocessors
      Microprocessor architecture – Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.
      General Ability Test Paper – III
      1. General ability test:
      The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person

  5. i want to know informations about jto examination 2011 ?
    how can i apply for this whats elligibility criteria?
    can i do this appearing

  6. Respected Sir/Madam,
    I’m a graduate in BE[teiecommunication] from VTU ,in Siddaganga Institute of Technology.
    If any openigs for freshers please inform us sir.Thanking you,.

  7. sir i am a 4th yr student on ECE prepairing for jto please send me past papers and ebooks sites

  8. iam studying 3year cse dept sir ,i want to write the jto exam sir,so i want prepar now itself sir,how toprepar,iam a cs dept iam eligibel for that or not sir,what are the sylabus for that sir,please help me sir

  9. sir m 3rd yr ece student……. could u tell m in bief bout jto…… wen n how its xam gets conducted….plzzzzz

  10. hallo ,sir
    i an final year B.E.(C.S) student.
    i am preparing for jto 2010 pls help me
    send me old and model papers
    and some nice books for jto

    thanks and regard

  11. Hello
    iam preparing for JTO (Telecom),please send the paper of previos five year in ece on my mail id

  12. hello,
    iam preparing for 2010JTO (Telecom),please send thesolved question paper of previousfive year in ece on my mail id

    Reply

  13. Dear sir
    Please do send me previous 5 year paper with answers….
    Thank u

  14. Dear sir
    please do send me previous 5 years pepar with answers………….
    thank you.

  15. sir plz send me last 5 years ‘BSNL JTO’ question papers….
    plzzzzz sir
    thanks sir

  16. sir,
    can i know the exam date for jto 2011 and is there any change in syllabus? plz do reply and please send previous yrs papers with answers………..

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